Fernando Cortés, AKA Moses

emperornorton

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Some people say freemasonry* has been around for five hundred years or so. Others, however, claim to trace freemasonry all the way back to Moses. What if they're both right?

I claim, in contravention of orthodox history and theology that:

1) the stories related in the first five books of the Old Testament (the Pentateuch) were written in the early 16th century and relate events centered on the explusion of Jews from Spain and the Conquest of Mexico.

2) the Biblical Moses is primarily based on the figure of conquistador Fernando Cortés.

3) all the events described in the Bible took place, if they took place, in the Americas (specifically the American Southwest).

4) the Protestant Reformation and the invention of the printing press provided the opportunity and means of injecting the aforesaid texts (and others) into the standard Bible canon.



new_moses.jpg

ABOVE: Why is Cortés constantly compared to Moses?


Before I adduce positive evidence for these claims, I remind you that the traditional view, placing these events in the area of the Middle East and thereabouts, rests merely on the correspondence of like geographic placenames, and (I guess) the perceived implausibility of faking something like that. The other forms of evidence for the traditional view, the kind that you'd expect to be all over the place, are conspicuously absent.

Most strikingly, the ground in the "Holy Land," per its conventional location, hasn't yielded any archaeological evidence for the many events, battles, landforms, cities, structures, or persons described in the Old Testament scriptures. And it's not for lack of anybody of trying to find them. Researchers have spent centuries looking for something to scientifically legitimate the Biblical narrative in Palestine. The true believers in these efforts are willing to tolerate a standard of evidence that is minimal indeed but even they can't do better than submit their constrained conjectures apologetically.

You'll see a lot of statements like these, taken from Finegan's The Archaeological Background of the Hebrew-Christian Religion, which is typical of the genre:
"we may say that Egypt affords us no direct evidence of the sojourn of the Israelites."
"the much-to-be-desired evidence at Jericho is lacking."
"At the time of the Israelites, there was no city [Jerusalem] there"

Apologetes like Finegan end up having to pretend that these problems constitute a special form of proof. The sacking of Jerusalem, he says in this line, "is reflected only too clearly in the archeological realm by the paucity of important materials." And as for the Conquest of Caanan, he notes that "Joshua evidently did a thorough job of destruction." Tautologies like these and the occasional excavated well that nobody can prove wasn't the one Joseph drew his water from is about all there is connecting the Bible to the "Bible lands."

Unless, that is, you count the fake antiquities. I don't. The only way the Dead Sea scrolls could look any more fake was if they were found stuffed in a Bud Light bottle. Even the pyramids of Giza appear to be modern creations, constructed during Napoleon's Egyptian campaign. Most of the famous Egyptian relics were allegedly found at the same time and must likewise come under suspicion.


sea_of_cortez.jpg

ABOVE: The Sea of Cortez (Gulf of California)


In America we don't have this problem. The evidence is right in front of our faces. Even the geographic place-markers for the scriptural events are still around. Just look at any map. I'm just going to post a couple examples of buildings in California whose builders and original residents have disappeared. I think everyone is familiar with these things, so I won't belabor the point. Individually these don't point infallibly toward Mosaic conquest, but if you examine these along with the names of counties, cities and other place-names in California and Arizona a very compelling pattern emerges. Why are there so many Egyptian place-names on the West Coast? Does Exodus XV: 27 refer to Palm Springs?


kings_county.jpg

ABOVE: A cluster of strange buildings in Kings County in California's San Joaquin Valley. Was this the scene of a Biblical battle?

Now, in identifying Moses as Cortés, it is not necessary that there be a single historical individual having the name and corresponding precisely with the historical personage of Fernando Cortés as we know him. At the very time the conquistadors were marching across Mexico, Spain herself was rocked by the revolutionary comunero (communist) movement uprising, which group identified its governmental pretensions by the name of "cortés" as well. It is hard (unless you're an historian I guess) not to infer a conspiratorial link between the two events, the conquest abroad and the revolution at home. But whether one was named for the other or both in reference to a concept significant to the cause doesn't affect my claims. By "Cortés" I mean nothing more than "the leader of the Conquest."


exodus.jpg



Of course there are several obvious similarities between the two men. Moses assumed his position of influence among the Egyptians by means of infiltration. Cortés likewise made use of intrigue to attain his leadership position for the conquest. Furthermore, his curious habit of attributing judgments to "the Christians," suggests substantial versimilitude along religious lines as well. Moses is said to have written five books. Cortés wrote five letters. They both carried a staff, etc.

The unusual variation historians have imposed on Cortés' first name ("Hernan") provides another clue. Doesn't it seem bizarre to change the man's name? All contemporary accounts refer to him as Fernando, with the occasional Ferdinand or Fernandus thrown in. But nowadays it's always "Hernan." Why? I suggest that the variant form is intended to signify Moses' brother "Aaron" (the Spanish h is silent).


red_sea.jpg

ABOVE: The Sea of Cortés is also known as the "Red Sea"

Another point of coincidence is found in the naming of the Gulf of California, or "Sea of Cortez," which was historically known as the "Red Sea," or "Vermillion Sea" (vermillion is a scarlet red) under which names it appears on the old maps. It may be objected that this is a somewhat generic descriptive term. But there are good reasons to regard this circumstance as significant.



newspapers.jpg



First, there is not, besides the familiar one located along the Sinai Peninsula, any other body of water, to my knowledge, that is named the "Red Sea." Second, Eusabius Kino (real last name Kuhn) a Jesuit rector of Sonora, Mexico who upon reconfirming the continuity of California with the North American landmass in 1702 (most people thought California was an island at the time--and maybe it was) declared that his discovery gave confirmation to the Exodus of Moses as recorded in the Bible. If he didn't equate Moses with Cortés then that would be a ridiculous thing to say, right?


san_simeon.jpg

ABOVE: Is California the real "holy land"?


I contend that the Biblical names listed in the right-hand column below refer in fact to the corresponding New World cognate-forms on the left:

King Ferdinand Pharaoh

Gila River The Nile

Mojavites Moabites

Carribean Sea Arabian Sea

Pacific Ocean Mediterranean Sea

Salton Sea The Dead Sea



battles.jpg

ABOVE: What do those flaming red castles represent?

The most obvious objection to my claims is the priority of the Old Testament scriptures. As usual, however, the evidence for this "obvious truth" crumbles under inspection. Mainstream authorities invariably claim very great antiquity for the Pentateuch but the oldest possible extant edition, as far as I can tell, is from 1537 or so. And that edition is not something I could find a copy of on the Internet. The Wycliffe Bible, which predates the conquest, is supposed to contain the Old Testament, but again, as far as I can tell, the Wycliffe Bible never included anything but the New Testament alone. If I am correct here, the claimed Wycliffe Old Testament is the sort of lie that would testify strongly for my thesis. It also looks to me like the Old Testament was originally written in a language other than Hebrew, but I'm not sure.


wyclif_vs_thomas_mathew_bible.jpg

ABOVE LEFT: The Wycliffe Bible--No Old Testament


Then you have the supposedly ancient art depicting the events of the Old Testament. I will just say that the circumstances attending an investigation into these claims are much the same as related above.


moses_art.jpg



The implications of these claims, supposing their truth, are deep and far-reaching. I have a lot more to say on the topic but I will end this post with a few more old-time newspaper clippings.

Thanks for reading!


masonic_jokes.jpg


*I mean the kind of freemasonry that destroys things; not the "operative" kind that theoretically builds things.
 

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trismegistus

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I've recently spent some time in the American West, and my overall takeaway from my experience there is "some Old Testament shit happened out here"

For example - Bryce Canyon in Utah. It appears as if something was purposefully destroyed out there, it doesn't really look like the result of "natural" processes. While I was filming, I caught what I believe to be the remnants of some type of temple and pyramid complex.

temple.jpg

From the right moving left, you can see a temple with statues, a pyramid, another temple and walls in the foreground. While I was filming out there, I overheard a Mormon speaking to his son - he was explaining how the light of the sun casts shadows at different times of the day and reveals the temples. I thought that was a very interesting choice of phrase at the time, until I saw this on my monitor a few minutes later.

Oh, and unsurprisingly this feature does not exist on google earth. The red circle is where I was standing relative to the photo.

map.png

There's another interesting feature I was lucky to catch on my zoom lens from the window of a van driving down I40 in New Mexico. It is undoubtedly a step pyramid with a temple on top.

pyramid 2.png
pyramid 1.png

And wouldn't you know it - they completely change the way it looks on google earth!

pyramid fake.png
Not only does this pyramid "not exist" - it also resides in Cibola county, NM. Topographical maps do actually have a name for this feature - they call it Timia. I have not dug into the origins of this name, though initial searches didn't turn up much.

Excellent thread, OP. This type of research has been kicking around between research groups for a while and definitely deserves a full discussion here.
 

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Silveryou

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At the very time the conquistadors were marching across Mexico, Spain herself was rocked by the revolutionary comunero (communist) movement uprising, which group identified its governmental pretensions by the name of "cortés" as well.
This makes me think about the similarity of the Spanish word cortes with the Roman cohort (Latin cohors). The cohort was a military unit whose number supposedly varied throughout history but it is commonly said to be composed from 480 to 600 armed men and divided in six centuriae (five for the first cohort of the legion) which were the base for the Centuriate Assembly, one of the voting assemblies in the Roman constitution. The legion was not only a fighting system, but also a voting one.

In this case the number of armed men following Cortes is precisely that of a cohort (around 500 men) and in the Revolt of the Spanish Comuneros they talk about cortes in relation to legislation, with the comuneros being an armed body. Maybe there's more to this than meets the eye
 

emperornorton

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For example - Bryce Canyon in Utah. It appears as if something was purposefully destroyed out there, it doesn't really look like the result of "natural" processes. While I was filming, I caught what I believe to be the remnants of some type of temple and pyramid complex.
Utah is full of things like this, and the history of the Mormon pioneers is largely a continuation of conquest. The Great Salt Lake itself (along with the other salt lakes of North America) is almost certainly related to the event described in the Bible as the parting of the red sea and both of these would seem to relate again to the Califonia-as-an-island phenomenon.

The earliest maps of America depict California along the Western edge of the continent, much as it appears on modern maps. However, maps published from the late 16th-century until the early 18th century depict California as an island. We're expected to believe that the centuries-long California island was just a cartographic blunder that went viral. Despite the fact that it was teeming with pearls, apparently no one bothered to sail up the Gulf of California for over a hundred years. I can believe anything but this.

I think California did become an island in the 16th century, shortly after Cortés and his allies marched there across the desert. The subsequent flooding of the land east of the Sierra Nevada Mountains--which is known as the "Great Basin"--would be the event described in the Bible as the destruction of Pharoah's pursuing army.

According to the Jesuits the strongest earthquake recorded in America, up to that point, occurred in 1687. This was shortly before Eusabius Kino rediscovered a path by land from Mexico to California, and may have been the event that made that possible. This, or a subsequent earthquake may have also been responsible for creating the San Francisco Bay. It is remarkable that none of the sailing expeditions or even explorers on land were aware of the largest harbor on the West Coast of the continent until 1769. The professional explanation for this is fog.

The Indians have a tradition that the Bay was created--i.e. opened up to the Sea--near the close of the 17th century, during an earthquake. Before that time, they say, there was simply a large inland lake there. Indeed, much of the Sacramento and San Joaquin valleys were also covered by inland lakes until the time of the Civil War.

All of this leads me to suspect that it was an earthquake that separated California from the mainland, either by subsidence of the desert lands to the east of California, or perhaps by the destruction of a dam on the Colorado river. It is worth noting that the U.S. fifty dollar bill seems (some say) to depict the Hoover Dam (bursting?) and that this year is the 500th anniversary of the conquest of Mexico.

hoover_dam_us_50_dollar_bill.PNG
 

Armouro

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In the words of Shang Tsung, "A taste of things to come".


So. The opening salvo in the war for you by you against you.

I have a lot to say and ask, but I must begin by saying GOOD ON YOU. I could talk about this stuff for months. Years!
I have, actually, and still do.
It’s a breath of fresh air to see another perspective coming around to bat these mainly-unchallenged concepts down with some solid sourcing and some simple scrutiny; which even centuries of unchallenged, hasty narrative seems to falter under.

1: Aegyptian relics.
“Even the pyramids of Giza appear to be modern creations, constructed during Napoleon's Egyptian campaign. Most of the famous Egyptian relics were allegedly found at the same time and must likewise come under suspicion.”
The claims of relic recovery ARE under suspicion, because those were the decades when the USACE most frequently worked between the American Southwest and Aegypt. The field reports of those decades highlight this in spades.

2:Names of Places.
Disregard this! Many places are named again and again. There is a MartinLuther King Jr. blvd or street in every major city.
There are, historically, 12 Jerusalems. 8 Moscows. 3 Romes.
This connexion is tenuous, at best.

Watch this and read the articles involved.

You are not alone.

View: https://youtu.be/nZ17-H3i8vk


http://uploads.documents.cimpress.i...-77c5c9207a05~110/original?tenant=vbu-digital

View: https://www.bitchute.com/video/1QDw9IRd0Ok/


https://obryprojekt.info/resources
 

Will Scarlet

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the Protestant Reformation and the invention of the printing press provided the opportunity and means of injecting the aforesaid texts (and others) into the standard Bible canon.

...Mainstream authorities invariably claim very great antiquity for the Pentateuch but the oldest possible extant edition, as far as I can tell, is from 1537 or so.

The Aleppo Codex and the Leningrad Codex are the oldest complete versions, written by the Masoretes in the 10th and 11th centuries, respectively. The Ashkar-Gilson Manuscript falls in between the early scrolls and the later codices." (Article)

https://stolenhistory.net/threads/the-oldest-copies-of-the-bible.4226/
At the very time the conquistadors were marching across Mexico, Spain herself was rocked by the revolutionary comunero (communist) movement uprising, which group identified its governmental pretensions by the name of "cortés" as well.

Comunero means community, not communist. Do you have a source for the word 'cortés' in relation to the comuneros? The communities united to form 'juntas' - which could be compared to 'courts' at a stretch.

Actually the comuneros proposed a form of Confederacy not communism, which was similar to the situation in the Italian Republic at the time. There is much more to the Comuneros Uprising than a 'communist revolt':

https://mises.org/library/comuneros-revolt-and-its-lessons
By "Cortés" I mean nothing more than "the leader of the Conquest."

'Cortés' translates as 'courtesy', i.e. the etiquette of the court.

But nowadays it's always "Hernan." Why? I suggest that the variant form is intended to signify Moses' brother "Aaron" (the Spanish h is silent).

Even if Hernàn and Aaron sounded vaguely similar (which they don't), why would he be named after Moses' brother if he was supposed to be Moses himself?

I think there's another similar thread on here whereby the Old Testament is supposed to be the history of Bulgaria.
 

Daniel

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In Fomenko's writings, Moses is the 15th century Ottoman Musa.

Joshua, Son of Nun is Mehmet II. The Conquest of the "Promised Land" is the Ottoman Conquest of the Byzantine Empire. And Jericho is Constantinople.
 

Onijunbei

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1. The stories of the Bible were taken from Persia, Chaldea, Mesopotamia....they are thousands of years old, if not 10s of thousands of years old.
2. The biblical Moses is a character ...not a real man. He metaphorically is trying to get the Israelites out of Egypt (winter), and pyschologically is trying to convey spiritual knowledge.
3. They took place amonst the stars.... Most of the stories of the Bible are astrotheological.
4. Correct, much has been interjected into the Bible, but the books and chapters still tell the same stories...the ones that have come down from Persia and Sumeria.
 

fabiorem

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I don't know how it works in spanish, but in portuguese, "cortes" is the plural for "corte", which translates as "court" in english.
So his surname, "Cortés", means courts, like courts from noble houses.
Now, I always found strange that a battalion was called "cohort" among the romans, because this word translates as "coorte" in portuguese, and the similarity with "corte" is even more striking than in english.
This word "corte" also means "cut" in portuguese.
So there is a relationship between court, battalion and the act of cutting (with a sword, maybe). This just points to the violent origin of noble houses, that is, aggressors which were sucessful became the aristocracy, whereas those who weren't became criminals.
Fernando Cortés could mean both a noble house, a cohort or the act of aggression itself. I think he is a fictional character, like many others in history. The name Fernando means "adventurous", and Cortés was a adventurer.
 
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Will Scarlet

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I don't know how it works in spanish, but in portuguese, "cortes" is the plural for "corte", which translates as "court" in english.

'Cortés' translates as 'courtesy', i.e. the etiquette of the court.

Corte is a different word and comes from the verb cortar - to cut, i.e. El Corte Inglés (the English cut, famous department store in Spain and Portugal.)

So there is a relationship between court, battalion and the act of cutting (with a sword, maybe).

Cortés is an adjective - eres cortés = you are kind/courteous. Plural is Corteses from Cortesanos - members of the royal court (Courtiers.)

"Cortés (apellido)
Cortés o Cortes es un apellido originario de la realeza española y portuguesa. Se deriva del cortê y significa gobernante de masas. Se deriva del francés antiguo "curteis", que significa "amable, cortés, o bien educado" y es análogo al Curtis inglés, aunque la forma inglesa se ha utilizado más ampliamente como nombre propio.
Referencia

Percy Hide Reaney, Richard Middlewood Wilson, A Dictionary of English Surnames (1991), p. 121."

Translation:
"Cortés (last name)
Cortés or Cortes is an original surname of the Spanish and Portuguese royalty. It is derived from cortê and means ruler of the masses. It is derived from Old French "curteis," meaning "kind, courteous, or well-mannered," and is analogous to English Curtis, although the English form has been used more widely as a proper noun.

Reference

Percy Hide Reaney, Richard Middlewood Wilson, A Dictionary of English Surnames (1991), p. 121." (Source)

I can find no relationship between cortar and cortés in Spanish, but that doesn't mean there never was one. Battalion in Spanish is batallón. It's quite a leap to claim that this "points to the violent origin of noble houses," in my opinion.
 

emperornorton

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I don't know how it works in spanish, but in portuguese, "cortes" is the plural for "corte", which translates as "court" in english.
So his surname, "Cortés", means courts, like courts from noble houses.
Now, I always found strange that a battalion was called "cohort" among the romans, because this word translates as "coorte" in portuguese, and the similarity with "corte" is even more striking than in english.
This word "corte" also means "cut" in portuguese.
So there is a relationship between court, battalion and the act of cutting (with a sword, maybe). This just points to the violent origin of noble houses, that is, aggressors which were sucessful became the aristocracy, whereas those who weren't became criminals.
Fernando Cortés could mean both a noble house, a cohort or the act of aggression itself. I think he is a fictional character, like many others in history. The name Fernando means "adventurous", and Cortés was a adventurer.

I think the name "Fernando Cortes," under the most generous concession to plausibility, is roughly along the lines of a name like "Stonewall Jackson." Lopez De Gomara, in one of his books, says something like "Ferdinando Cortes, so called, because he looks for gold in the court-room." I don't think there is any doubt that the name signifies courts, whether by etymological happenstance or derisive pun, though I guess there is some distance between the regal and legal shades of connotation to be had. At any rate, it looks to me like a greater game of deception is being played.

Notice, that in the old books, "cortes," is often uncapitalized (I mean, following "Fernando," and obviously referring to the same) and never with the acento agudo on the second vowel. Then there's the wild variation in spelling, within a single book, and even on the same page.

cortez_consistency.jpg
This is all from one book (The Pleasant Historie of the Conquest of West India.) Besides the spelling variations, note that highlighted terms are printed in a different, more modern font than the rest of the book, as though they were superimposed on an earlier, separate work.

But as I said earlier, when I refer to "Cortés," I only mean to indicate the leader of the conquest. And furthermore, Cortés, I claim, was the primary basis for the character of Moses, but not the only one. I appreciate the comments.


joseph_san_jose.jpg
 

Will Scarlet

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I don't think there is any doubt that the name signifies courts, whether by etymological happenstance or derisive pun, though I guess there is some distance between the regal and legal shades of connotation to be had. At any rate, it looks to me like a greater game of deception is being played.

Yes there is plenty of doubt. If we are going to simply make things up then how are we any better than Scallinger & Co.? I don't think there is any doubt that you think the name signifies 'courts', but that doesn't make it a fact. I don't really see the relevance even if it does mean 'courts'.

I notice this is a duplicate of a post on the .org website.

If Ferdinand II was the equivalent of the Egyptian Pharaoh, then he should have at least lived consecutively with 'Moses' Cortés or am I missing something? Was the exodus of the Jews from out of captivity in Spain? Does it coincide with their banishment in 1492?

If the exodus story appears in the original Hebrew Bible does that mean it was a premonition of the alleged American event some 500 years later? Oh no, sorry I forgot you claim they were all forgeries. However, the oldest copy of the Torah was written: between 1155 and 1225 CE and is located in the University of Bologna, Italy. It contains the complete Torah (Pentateuch). (Source)
 

Will Scarlet

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I have had some additional thoughts on this Cortés subject. I wonder, given that "Cortés or Cortes is an original surname of the Spanish and Portuguese royalty," if the courtesy/courtly reference of the surname is related to the concept of 'Chivalry'?

I remember that KD had some ideas regarding Chivalry back on SH1, for example:

SH Archive - Ancient TOP 9, and their Coats of Arms
 

Silveryou

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I have had some additional thoughts on this Cortés subject. I wonder, given that "Cortés or Cortes is an original surname of the Spanish and Portuguese royalty," if the courtesy/courtly reference of the surname is related to the concept of 'Chivalry'?

I remember that KD had some ideas regarding Chivalry back on SH1, for example:

SH Archive - Ancient TOP 9, and their Coats of Arms
I thought the same, particularly in reference to "chivalric romance" (Chivalric romance - Wikipedia). I know that it could sound strange, but maybe there is a medieval connection (one upon many) between Roman Coohorts and Chivalric Romance. I say "one upon many" because there are a lot of reinterpretations of supposedly "ancient" Latin words that assumed new meanings during the middle-ages (not only Latin, by the way).
 

Will Scarlet

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I thought the same, particularly in reference to "chivalric romance" (Chivalric romance - Wikipedia). I know that it could sound strange, but maybe there is a medieval connection (one upon many) between Roman Coohorts and Chivalric Romance. I say "one upon many" because there are a lot of reinterpretations of supposedly "ancient" Latin words that assumed new meanings during the middle-ages (not only Latin, by the way).

Well, it certainly seems to have been an ancient and very widespread phenomena. I believe the Victorians mutated (mutilated?) it by connecting it directly with Christianity. It was also the chosen vehicle of the Rosicrucians, although that seemed to me to have a more 'alchemical' influence. It's a topic that deserves more investigation imo.
 

Ponygirl

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Some people say freemasonry* has been around for five hundred years or so. Others, however, claim to trace freemasonry all the way back to Moses. What if they're both right?

I claim, in contravention of orthodox history and theology that:

1) the stories related in the first five books of the Old Testament (the Pentateuch) were written in the early 16th century and relate events centered on the explusion of Jews from Spain and the Conquest of Mexico.

2) the Biblical Moses is primarily based on the figure of conquistador Fernando Cortés.

3) all the events described in the Bible took place, if they took place, in the Americas (specifically the American Southwest).

4) the Protestant Reformation and the invention of the printing press provided the opportunity and means of injecting the aforesaid texts (and others) into the standard Bible canon.



View attachment 10465
ABOVE: Why is Cortés constantly compared to Moses?


Before I adduce positive evidence for these claims, I remind you that the traditional view, placing these events in the area of the Middle East and thereabouts, rests merely on the correspondence of like geographic placenames, and (I guess) the perceived implausibility of faking something like that. The other forms of evidence for the traditional view, the kind that you'd expect to be all over the place, are conspicuously absent.

Most strikingly, the ground in the "Holy Land," per its conventional location, hasn't yielded any archaeological evidence for the many events, battles, landforms, cities, structures, or persons described in the Old Testament scriptures. And it's not for lack of anybody of trying to find them. Researchers have spent centuries looking for something to scientifically legitimate the Biblical narrative in Palestine. The true believers in these efforts are willing to tolerate a standard of evidence that is minimal indeed but even they can't do better than submit their constrained conjectures apologetically.

You'll see a lot of statements like these, taken from Finegan's The Archaeological Background of the Hebrew-Christian Religion, which is typical of the genre:
"we may say that Egypt affords us no direct evidence of the sojourn of the Israelites."
"the much-to-be-desired evidence at Jericho is lacking."
"At the time of the Israelites, there was no city [Jerusalem] there"

Apologetes like Finegan end up having to pretend that these problems constitute a special form of proof. The sacking of Jerusalem, he says in this line, "is reflected only too clearly in the archeological realm by the paucity of important materials." And as for the Conquest of Caanan, he notes that "Joshua evidently did a thorough job of destruction." Tautologies like these and the occasional excavated well that nobody can prove wasn't the one Joseph drew his water from is about all there is connecting the Bible to the "Bible lands."

Unless, that is, you count the fake antiquities. I don't. The only way the Dead Sea scrolls could look any more fake was if they were found stuffed in a Bud Light bottle. Even the pyramids of Giza appear to be modern creations, constructed during Napoleon's Egyptian campaign. Most of the famous Egyptian relics were allegedly found at the same time and must likewise come under suspicion.


View attachment 10467
ABOVE: The Sea of Cortez (Gulf of California)


In America we don't have this problem. The evidence is right in front of our faces. Even the geographic place-markers for the scriptural events are still around. Just look at any map. I'm just going to post a couple examples of buildings in California whose builders and original residents have disappeared. I think everyone is familiar with these things, so I won't belabor the point. Individually these don't point infallibly toward Mosaic conquest, but if you examine these along with the names of counties, cities and other place-names in California and Arizona a very compelling pattern emerges. Why are there so many Egyptian place-names on the West Coast? Does Exodus XV: 27 refer to Palm Springs?


View attachment 10472
ABOVE: A cluster of strange buildings in Kings County in California's San Joaquin Valley. Was this the scene of a Biblical battle?

Now, in identifying Moses as Cortés, it is not necessary that there be a single historical individual having the name and corresponding precisely with the historical personage of Fernando Cortés as we know him. At the very time the conquistadors were marching across Mexico, Spain herself was rocked by the revolutionary comunero (communist) movement uprising, which group identified its governmental pretensions by the name of "cortés" as well. It is hard (unless you're an historian I guess) not to infer a conspiratorial link between the two events, the conquest abroad and the revolution at home. But whether one was named for the other or both in reference to a concept significant to the cause doesn't affect my claims. By "Cortés" I mean nothing more than "the leader of the Conquest."


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Of course there are several obvious similarities between the two men. Moses assumed his position of influence among the Egyptians by means of infiltration. Cortés likewise made use of intrigue to attain his leadership position for the conquest. Furthermore, his curious habit of attributing judgments to "the Christians," suggests substantial versimilitude along religious lines as well. Moses is said to have written five books. Cortés wrote five letters. They both carried a staff, etc.

The unusual variation historians have imposed on Cortés' first name ("Hernan") provides another clue. Doesn't it seem bizarre to change the man's name? All contemporary accounts refer to him as Fernando, with the occasional Ferdinand or Fernandus thrown in. But nowadays it's always "Hernan." Why? I suggest that the variant form is intended to signify Moses' brother "Aaron" (the Spanish h is silent).


View attachment 10469
ABOVE: The Sea of Cortés is also known as the "Red Sea"

Another point of coincidence is found in the naming of the Gulf of California, or "Sea of Cortez," which was historically known as the "Red Sea," or "Vermillion Sea" (vermillion is a scarlet red) under which names it appears on the old maps. It may be objected that this is a somewhat generic descriptive term. But there are good reasons to regard this circumstance as significant.



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First, there is not, besides the familiar one located along the Sinai Peninsula, any other body of water, to my knowledge, that is named the "Red Sea." Second, Eusabius Kino (real last name Kuhn) a Jesuit rector of Sonora, Mexico who upon reconfirming the continuity of California with the North American landmass in 1702 (most people thought California was an island at the time--and maybe it was) declared that his discovery gave confirmation to the Exodus of Moses as recorded in the Bible. If he didn't equate Moses with Cortés then that would be a ridiculous thing to say, right?


View attachment 10471
ABOVE: Is California the real "holy land"?


I contend that the Biblical names listed in the right-hand column below refer in fact to the corresponding New World cognate-forms on the left:

King Ferdinand Pharaoh

Gila River The Nile

Mojavites Moabites

Carribean Sea Arabian Sea

Pacific Ocean Mediterranean Sea

Salton Sea The Dead Sea



View attachment 10474
ABOVE: What do those flaming red castles represent?

The most obvious objection to my claims is the priority of the Old Testament scriptures. As usual, however, the evidence for this "obvious truth" crumbles under inspection. Mainstream authorities invariably claim very great antiquity for the Pentateuch but the oldest possible extant edition, as far as I can tell, is from 1537 or so. And that edition is not something I could find a copy of on the Internet. The Wycliffe Bible, which predates the conquest, is supposed to contain the Old Testament, but again, as far as I can tell, the Wycliffe Bible never included anything but the New Testament alone. If I am correct here, the claimed Wycliffe Old Testament is the sort of lie that would testify strongly for my thesis. It also looks to me like the Old Testament was originally written in a language other than Hebrew, but I'm not sure.


View attachment 10475
ABOVE LEFT: The Wycliffe Bible--No Old Testament


Then you have the supposedly ancient art depicting the events of the Old Testament. I will just say that the circumstances attending an investigation into these claims are much the same as related above.


View attachment 10477


The implications of these claims, supposing their truth, are deep and far-reaching. I have a lot more to say on the topic but I will end this post with a few more old-time newspaper clippings.

Thanks for reading!


View attachment 10479

*I mean the kind of freemasonry that destroys things; not the "operative" kind that theoretically builds things.
Have you also considered Lake Canobis which is no longer on maps? It could have caused the flood and made CA part of the mainland. Queen Califia? A black Queen who ruled a land of gold and diamonds with her fierce female warriors who rode griffins(wizard of oz flying monkeys?). Could she be the Queen of Sheba? Mormons(Mur--men) who found the 'promised land' of Utah? Did they know from their Book of Mormon about the promised land?
Your work is first rate, thank you for posting.
 

Ponygirl

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One more connection to Cortez and Moses or a 'new' Moses, same story--different land. Moses supposedly had his brother Aaron speak for him because Moses was 'shy'. Huh? Didn't Moses go up to meet God--whereas the people were terrified by God? Didn't Moses stand in front of the people and priests doing his rod into a serpent trick? Didn't Moses bust up the 10 commandments in front of the people because he was mad at them?
Sounds like he wasn't all that 'shy'. Maybe Moses just didn't speak the language of the people--because he wasn't from there.
 

JohnNada

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One more connection to Cortez and Moses or a 'new' Moses, same story--different land. Moses supposedly had his brother Aaron speak for him because Moses was 'shy'. Huh? Didn't Moses go up to meet God--whereas the people were terrified by God? Didn't Moses stand in front of the people and priests doing his rod into a serpent trick? Didn't Moses bust up the 10 commandments in front of the people because he was mad at them?
Sounds like he wasn't all that 'shy'. Maybe Moses just didn't speak the language of the people--because he wasn't from there.
Great thought, perhaps his shyness was due to the people’s language not being the primary language used by Moses...
 
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