My contribution here comes from an angle that I've worked, something which I stumbled upon and led to a research that combined historicity of Heliocentrism with ancient chronology issues. It's another rabbit hole for which I have material for a unique thread but let's see.
Every piece I found led me to open a new layer. So if you read it all, I hope you'd keep up with my line of thought because the subject is multi-layered.
It first started when I was wondering about the meaning of a certain known Old Testament phrase.
"From India to Kush"
Book of Esther 1:1: "This is what happened during the time of Xerxes, the Xerxes who ruled over 127 provinces stretching from India to Cush: 2 At that time King Xerxes reigned from his royal throne in the citadel of Susa"
The book tells the tales of the Jews in the Persian kingdom, under Xerxes' rule (
Ahasuerus) The book isn't claimed to represent a specific Xerxes, but the narrative places it in the
Achaemenid Empire of circa 480 B.C.
What does this verse mean? Well, the modern narrative tells us that the empire simply stretched from India to Kush (east Africa), and that's it.
In the Hebrew Bible, the verse goes like:
וַיְהִי, בִּימֵי אֲחַשְׁוֵרוֹשׁ: הוּא אֲחַשְׁוֵרוֹשׁ, הַמֹּלֵךְ מֵהֹדּוּ וְעַד-כּוּשׁ--שֶׁבַע וְעֶשְׂרִים וּמֵאָה, מְדִינָה.
"He is Ahashverosh (
Ahasuerus), who rules rules from Hodu and until Kush"
My personal research convinced me we certainly
do not know the actual locations of biblical places. Hodu=India, and Kush=Ethiopia,
are but early modern interpretations that should be taken with caution.
Before we continue on the verse's meaning, let's jump briefly to
Heliocentrism.
We have encountered evidence or hypothesis in regards to how and when was the modern heliocentric model pushed, and who are the characters behind it. We're generally told that the model came to life by the late 1400's, followed by persecution, and becoming somewhat accepted only by the 1700's. We're in doubt, of course, but let's 'roll'.
roll
In the circle of Judaism, the heliocentric controversy continued way longer, it is told. Disputes continued there into the
19th century.
The Talmud, a claimed to be 4th century creation (midages, imo), declares all 'Greek wisdom' to be dangerous, and includes 'earth-shape science'. The first Jew to mention the heliocentric model is the famous Rabbi,
Maharal of Prague (1593), who labels it unreliable. (He is known for creating 'The Golem', and possibly an alchemist.) Despite being in contact with Tycho Brahe, he dismissed the heliocentric model.
We have then a renowned,
progressive Rabbi, who by the 16th-17th century still does not accept the new model.
Normally, we are expecting this to be this way. Right?
Back to
'India to Kush'.
Just as our world history and literature was 'hijacked', the world of Judaism had the same fate. Perhaps to have some understanding of OT verses, one must dig into the old manuscripts of the many Rabbis of early times.
Those Rabbis discuss the meaning of the verse for many centuries. Most of such writings exist only in the Hebrew or Aramaic language, and finding translations is quite rare. I took the work to translate a few.
The common thing for all the discussions, is that they do not try to identify the locations - they're actually certain of them.
In fact, the only subject for them is: Do they represent the
whole of the world.
The Rabbis simply explain us that India to Kush means "ruled the whole world"?
And why so? Because India and Kush are next to one another (?), if a man was to walk in a straight line from India - he'd up end in Kush, means he went
all around the world.
What do Jewish sources say?
I have multiple interesting sources,
it's a long one - you might skip mid-way.
1)
In the Talmud we see a dispute of 2 opinions:
Babylonian Talmud, Megilah scroll, 11, Page 1:
חד אמר: הודו בסוף העולם וכוש בסוף העולם,
וחד אמר: הודו וכוש גבי הדדי הוו קיימי (זו לצד זו עומדות), כשם שמלך על הודו וכוש - כך מלך מסוף העולם ועד סופו.
Rough translation:
"One said: India is at the world's end, and Kush at its other end.
And the other said: India and Kush stand on each other's sides, and as he ruled over India and Kush, so he reigned over the world from end to end".
2) Rabbi Shlomo Alkabetz, (
1500-1576), a most renowned Rabbi who lived in the
Ottoman Empire, wrote in his book 'Manot haLevi' about this question. He quotes the Talmud's writing and elaborates:
'יש לתמוה מה להם לחלוק על זה ומה לשקר במקום עדים. יחקרו וידעו! (כלומר הרי הערים הללו נמצאות לפנינו. איך אפשר לחלוק בדבר שבמציאות. אפשר ללכת למקום ולבדוק). וכן במחלוקת תפסח ועזה.
והאמת כי לא נחלקו, על זה אבל דעת שניהם שהם בהדי הדדי, אבל במשמעות איך כלל כל העולם בהם, הם חולקים. חד אמר כשם שמלך על הודו ועל כוש כך מלך על כל העולם, וחד אמר הודו בסוף, כי דבר ידוע כי הארץ כדורית ואין סוף לכדור כי אם במקום אשר יתחיל ממנו' עכ"ל.
My translation:
"We can wonder, why should they dispute over it, and lie. They can research - and know! meaning, those cities exist right before us. How can you dispute that which is in reality? You can go to the place itself and check it. And so about the dispute of Tifsach-Azza*:
And even though they did not dispute that, one, and are of the same opinion, but the meaning of how the world is, they do dispute. One said that since he ruled over India and Kush, he therefore ruled the whole world. The other said, India is at its end,
and it is a known thing that the earth is spherical ("ballish"), and there is no end for the ball, but in the place of where it begins"
This quote had raised many serious questions for me, that relate to both earth-model, and to other subjects discussed in S.H.
So, how come a conservative and 'traditional' Rabbi such as Alkabetz, who lived in Ottoman Greece & Israel, could've express such things in the 1500's? We know that the heliocentric model comes from the "west", and was considered heresy and 'fringe' in those times. Not only the Jews completely dismissed it in those days, we're talking about the Ottoman ones, who are even less exposed to such ideas. (allegedly)
- Tifsach-Azza: The Bible says of King Solomon who ruled from 'Tifsach to Azza'. The Talmud interpenetrates and compares this to "India to Kush", and explains it is but the same metaphor to mean: ruled the whole world. (Megilah 11:1)
If in our days, nobody can safely assume the locations mentioned in the stories (India, Kush, Tifsach, Azza, Susan..), how come the 16th cen. Rabbi speaks of their existence with such
confidence, as if their location is of
common knowledge, and anyone can go visit them and verify the verse's meaning?
His description is strongly referring to the "globe", unlike other Jewish sources that speak of a 'circular' Earth. He seems to be fully aware of the globe theories, and even accepts them as an undisputed reality.
Has this Rabbi actually live in 16th century? Or like so many other characters, he's is an early-modern person that was pushed back in time? It seems the
phantom time methods we know so well, reach to characters of all areas.
3) Saadia Gaon, (892-942 A.D) named "RSG", is a prominent Rabbi from Egypt, and one of the most honored in Judaism.
He wrote interpretations for many biblical books, among them the book of Esther. The
commentary is written in old Hebrew and Aramaic, and I had to use modern translations to understand it. It depicts an interesting perspective of old
geography.
My translation of selected parts:
- "the one who rules from India to Kush... our motive to look into this is, that we found both India and Kush to be on the South side. India is by the East on that line
(as in latitude/longtitude), and Kush is next to the West. Our conclusion is: If this king did not rule but only that certain line, then this town wasn't even under his rule, even Susa itself (
the capital) which is one of the seven provinces of Alahuaz (
a Persian region I couldn't identify), was neither under his rule, for this is the 'first Climate', and Susa belongs in the 'second Climate'.
And by this calculation, even the People of Israel weren't under his rule. And since those calculations are
impossible ... ... we should say that 'from India to Kush' means 'from sunrise to sunset'. Since the whole of the settled world is seven climates (from east to west), the first climate is the longest of them east-west,
due to the earth being round, the climate lines gradually 'shrink'. The book of Esther wrote of his kingdom only in latitude, and not in longtitude, and said 'India to Kush' by the longest of climates, the first line, which is from Sin to Chabash (
China to Ethiopia) .... .... and when they say 'Tifsach' to 'Azza', ... they mean the north and south edge of the land. ... ... And so the book speaks only of the kingdom's east-west, and did not include its north-south, shall we say, from
Hur to Samagog". (
spelled SMGOG)
I find RSG less decisive about the model, and it might be confusing. However, if to connect the idea of a 'continuity' of Xerxes' kingdom, with the commentary of RSG, we can understand that he reigns from the east end, China, to the west end, Ethiopia (back then, west Africa). The north-south edges, Hur and Samagog, are locations which I cannot identify. Samagog, however, rings a bell with Gog/Magog, which on previous SH threads were placed in the areas of Siberia-Tartaria.
I have found an old
commentary (by
Rabbi Isaac Abarbanel) of the book of Ezekiel, about the chapter that speaks
of the famous
"Rosh, Gog, Tuval and Meschech".
The word 'SMGOG' is mentioned there, in
relation to the cities and lands of Gog. But to be able to fully read and analyze such old Hebrew texts (and fonts), one must be trained by the jewish orthodox schools, which I am not.
However, he did confirm to us - SMGOG is related to GOG.
We know from previous SH research that Gog/Magog is related with the far north.
We realize that the commenter, a famous Rabbi born in 1437, was aware of SMGOG.
RSG, from the previous quote, was
also aware of its location.
4) Another perspective is given to us by Jerusalem-born rabbinical scholar,
David Azulay, in the
1788 book '
Dvarim Ahadim'.
He explains the connection with the holiday of Purim, which commemorates the story in the Book of Esther - The story of the (failed) plot to destroy the Jewish people of Xerxes' kingdom.
It says:
"As the people of Israel were in Sfard (Spain) and Afrika, which were not under Xerxes rule, we are all obliged to perform the holiday of Purim, even the Israelis who were not under his rule. Because, if the plot against the Jews would've succeeded, the same would've been done to Israelis under the rule of all the other kings".
A possible indication here, that the kingdom of Xerxes in fact influenced or partially dictated the policies of all the other kingdoms.
* * * *
This multi-layered angle really made a lot of questions for me:
- Who is Xerxes? and which kingdom does he really represent? We have many clones of such character, starting with Xerxes I. He seems to have affected every part of the world.
- When did the globe actually emerge into mainstream? If Jews are said to be the latest to accept the theory, how come they engage with it prior to the 'progressives'' acceptance, and some even before the theory existed?
- Is this 'phantom' time issue with old Jewish scholars leads to us to assume all such Jewish literature to be of a later time? Was the Talmud actually written closer towards the 13th century? We have events of Talmud Burning in Europe (dedicated Hebrew wiki) starting from 1242, and repeating into the 1700's. Perhaps the Talmud was NEW then, and created controversy.
- Are locations unknown to us were very clearly known to Jewish scholars? Gog, Hur, Tifsach, Azza, Susa, Hodu, Kush, are locations still in dispute today.
What's wrong with Jewish chronology?
This would be a good chance to introduce the Jewish concept of
"The Missing Years".
An old issue of the
165 year gap between the Jewish and Modern chronologies. It is disputed to this day.
The subject itself could have its own thread, and I recommend any chronology researcher to look into it,
but let's use it now for this current post: On its Hebrew wiki page you will find a claim about it, made by a Dr. Haim Hefetz,
a PhD religion-history researcher (in a religious institute), where he says:
"The Greek historians were not correct in their details, creating two contradicting versions, which forced historians
to add seven kings to the Persian Kingdom, when they in fact represent the same person, by different stories"
We actually see here
a 'mainstream' point of view which coincides with our SH narrative, where duplications are a key to explain missing years or phantom time.
Quite rare, I believe.
As I started the post with
Xerxes-Ahasuerus, let's finish with him too.
Does the Talmud tell us who he is? Yes, and again, evidence of duplication! I roughly translated from Aramaic:
Babylonian Talmud, Rosh hashana, page 3-AB:
"
He is Cyrus, he is Artahashstra, he is Darius, all are called as one. ... ... and by the decreed order of king of Persia Cyrus and Darius and Artahashstra, released the Jews... ... ... He is Darius, called Cyrus the First, and he is also Artahashstra."
Artaxerxes
Medieval art often depicts Ahasuerus as a
European king, in western/slavic clothing. There are numerous
depictions of scenes from the book.
In some cases, he's depicted as a Turban-wearing king, reminding of the 'Tartarian' style. His name's etymology is said to mean "king of kings", or "king of all". (Ahasue
rus possibly connected to 'Rus')
Ahasuerus, King of Persia, showing his treasure to Mordecai, uncle of his wife Esther, by Claude Vignon (1593-1670)
Notice the cross on the King's head.
Esther before Ahasuerus, 1478-1480. Artist: Lippi, Filippino
A very white and hellenic type of scene.
I hope this was contributive, even if not entirely about heliocentrism.
I wanted to show you how my 'shape of earth' questions collided with my 'stolen-history' questions
