France - Biblical Israel

Except it meant 'Gauls' not 'Eastern'.

I don't think any of us can say for certain what it 'meant', hence this discussion. But if you consider what else Silveryou stated here;

Fun fact is that Greeks (aka Byzantines aka Romans/Romaioi) actually called the French with that same term Keltoi during the 'middle-ages'.

then the 'meaning' Eastern would equally apply to both as they were all considered to be Scythians.

This is from an earlier post of mine;

Encyclopaedia Britannica, 3rd Edition, Volume 8, Pg. 713

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Which is partly true, but not entirely, as there was nothing to subdue because its a fact that the 'tribes' who came from the east were NOT coming to subdue Pannonia, but to protect it from the increasing invasion of the 'Romans'. Of course, this is not the version being taught in history class.

Source:

Tartary is Memory-Holed Because it is Key to Understanding the Bible, End Times
 
Which is partly true,

Partly true? This is all attributed to "The compilers of the Universal Hiftory" and these are exactly the people we have to thank for the complete and utter mess we have now. It exhibits exactly the same traits as have been discussed in this thread and the Arch of Glory one - the necessity to justify and validate their agenda and authority by demonstrating lineages from fictional, imaginary or non-human characters, which is hardly surprising as most of that edition of the Encyclopedia Britannica was edited and written by Christian priests.
 
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which is hardly surprising as most of that edition of the Encyclopedia Britannica was edited and written by Christian priests.

I think it should be obvious by now that none of the posters in this forum accept academic sources to be accurate, though we all agree on the fact that certain truths have remained in some of them.

There are two points worthy of considering regarding this matter;

1. The censorship was not as thorough and perfected as it is in today's academia and thereby more of the true research slipped into the mainstream.

2. It was harder to lie about the times which for the people of the 18th century was much more in the recent past than for us, since they've had an extra 200+ years since then to muddy the waters.

Considering these, I find those older sources reveal much more accurate information than recent ones. I took the time to go through some of the different versions of said encyclopaedia all of which I downloaded from archive.org and compared them. Upon doing this tedious task for many entries, one can get a grasp on the amount of editing, obscuring and falsifying that had occurred.
 
though we all agree on the fact that certain truths have remained in some of them.
No I don't. It's just as likely it's all invented.
Speaking or in this case writing for others as though there is a collective consensus is not what this site is about.
The academic populace thrive in collective consensus.

What is crystal to me is there is no repeatable tried and tested markers or method that can be used to determine firstly the authenticity of the document or artefact nor its content. Until such a thing is developed and tested beyond reasonable doubt its just endless speculation and opinion.
 
There are two points worthy of considering regarding this matter;

I strongly disagree with both of them.

Consider the name of Galicia, another allegedly Indo-European Celtic settlement in the furthest Westerly point of Europe or Finisterre - the end of the earth. Allegedly derives from the Latin toponym Callaecia, later Gallaecia, which is claimed to relate to the name of an ancient tribe that resided north of the Douro river, the Gallaeci or Callaeci in Latin, or Kallaikói (καλλαικoι) in Greek. The Douro or Duero river doesn't go through Galicia though, so that sounds like cobblers. And, yes, there were Greeks in the Iberian peninsula.

In the 6th century, Isidore of Seville related the name of the Galicians and of the Gauls to the Greek word γάλα, milk, 'they are called Galicians because of their fair skin, as the Gauls. For they are fairer than the rest of the peoples of Spain.' By your reckoning he should be telling the God's honest truth because he was much closer to the actual events.

However, today's Wikipedian 'scholars'

"relate the name of the ancient Callaeci either to the Proto-Indo-European *kal-n-H2 'hill', derived through a local relational suffix -aik-, so meaning 'the hill (people)'; or either to Proto-Celtic *kallī- 'forest', so meaning 'the forest (people)'. In either case, Galicia would mean "land of the Kallaikoi", and be unrelated to the Insular Celtic word Gael, which derives from the root *weydʰ- 'wilderness', or to Gallia, which derives from Celtic *galn- 'power, might'.

"Update It comes from the ancient name of the city of Porto Kala/kale/Cale meaning port/harbour. Also the city its in the origin of the country’s name Portugal. After the Romans toke over they called the city Portus-Cale/Portucale/Portugal which means Port Port in latin and Celtic. Kalã/kale/cale = what is nowadays Porto Kallaikoi/Calaeci/Galicia= people from Kalã/kale/Cale" Source

In other words, they are making it up as they go along on, but making sure it doesn't upset their Indo-European mantra. No mention of 'east' or 'eastern', which is hardly surprising given its location which is, or was, as far west as you could get.

Greek mythology features Galatea, a milky white daughter of the sea, also the word 'galaxy' derives from the same root, i.e. the Milky Way or Via Láctica.
 
I strongly disagree with both of them.

Consider the name of Galicia, another allegedly Indo-European Celtic settlement in the furthest Westerly point of Europe or Finisterre - the end of the earth. Allegedly derives from the Latin toponym Callaecia, later Gallaecia, which is claimed to relate to the name of an ancient tribe that resided north of the Douro river, the Gallaeci or Callaeci in Latin, or Kallaikói (καλλαικoι) in Greek. The Douro or Duero river doesn't go through Galicia though, so that sounds like cobblers. And, yes, there were Greeks in the Iberian peninsula.

In the 6th century, Isidore of Seville related the name of the Galicians and of the Gauls to the Greek word γάλα, milk, 'they are called Galicians because of their fair skin, as the Gauls. For they are fairer than the rest of the peoples of Spain.' By your reckoning he should be telling the God's honest truth because he was much closer to the actual events.

However, today's Wikipedian 'scholars'

"relate the name of the ancient Callaeci either to the Proto-Indo-European *kal-n-H2 'hill', derived through a local relational suffix -aik-, so meaning 'the hill (people)'; or either to Proto-Celtic *kallī- 'forest', so meaning 'the forest (people)'. In either case, Galicia would mean "land of the Kallaikoi", and be unrelated to the Insular Celtic word Gael, which derives from the root *weydʰ- 'wilderness', or to Gallia, which derives from Celtic *galn- 'power, might'.

"Update It comes from the ancient name of the city of Porto Kala/kale/Cale meaning port/harbour. Also the city its in the origin of the country’s name Portugal. After the Romans toke over they called the city Portus-Cale/Portucale/Portugal which means Port Port in latin and Celtic. Kalã/kale/cale = what is nowadays Porto Kallaikoi/Calaeci/Galicia= people from Kalã/kale/Cale" Source

In other words, they are making it up as they go along on, but making sure it doesn't upset their Indo-European mantra. No mention of 'east' or 'eastern', which is hardly surprising given its location which is, or was, as far west as you could get.

Greek mythology features Galatea, a milky white daughter of the sea, also the word 'galaxy' derives from the same root, i.e. the Milky Way or Via Láctica.
I have a slight feeling of deja vu - chapter 13

Have I already mentioned to read it?

P.S. It's also a good opportunity to mention the thread From Scythia to Maghreb: Beyond the Phantom Middle Ages especially the thoughts about Cyril
 
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Just doing a "stream of consciousness" thing here, from skimming this thread for the first time, and wondering aloud if any of these associations add up - Julius Caesar/Jesus Christ, in Gaul/Galilee, Mary Magdalene in Provence, descendants of Jesus/Mary become/marry into the Merovingians with King Clovis, Clovis the first named ancestor of Habsburg Emperor Maximilian I on his Arch of Glory, DNA testing shows the early Habsburgs may be descended from "Celtic" (Gaulish?) warriors.
 
No I don't. It's just as likely it's all invented.
Speaking or in this case writing for others as though there is a collective consensus is not what this site is about.
The academic populace thrive in collective consensus.

What is crystal to me is there is no repeatable tried and tested markers or method that can be used to determine firstly the authenticity of the document or artefact nor its content. Until such a thing is developed and tested beyond reasonable doubt its just endless speculation and opinion.
Ok. You don't.

Many others do think that truths are to be found in many sources, the bible, the vedas (particularly the oldest versions), certain historical records not fitting into the mainstream and 'censored' by them, not to mention information based on archeological excavation with an immense body of documented records that at those times some conscientious scientists had access to before they were removed from the public, and as of recent, the genetic information that is available (but is also being misused to confuse), some of which can shed a light on certain facts when in the right hands.

I am not going through all the quotes in the forum to give such references as if they did not exist, we'd all have given up long ago, instead, I'll only state that I respect that you're entitled to your opinion on this, and we can agree to disagree.

By your reckoning he should be telling the God's honest truth because he was much closer to the actual events.

You're taking a general statement and applying it to specifics. I can not comment on that specific example as I haven't studied the sources. I was instead speaking of the WHOLE body of available information.

however, I can offer an alternative possibility for this naming involving milk;

In the 6th century, Isidore of Seville related the name of the Galicians and of the Gauls to the Greek word γάλα, milk, 'they are called Galicians because of their fair skin, as the Gauls. For they are fairer than the rest of the peoples of Spain.'
Greek mythology features Galatea, a milky white daughter of the sea, also the word 'galaxy' derives from the same root, i.e. the Milky Way or Via Láctica.

In the Gesta Hungarorum it is symbolically mentioned that the originators of the Magyars came across the 'trail of the stars' (milky way) and were the descendants of Nimrud (the great hunter, possibly a reference to Orion). This is just one more interpretation available. The Greeks are also likely descendants of the Scythians and hence may have shared in the origin story which probably predates even them along with many other nations formed out of them (the Scythians).

Nothing is written in stone (escept all the ancient stories left to us written in various types of old scripts on 'temple' walls and clay tablets - now mostly unavailable for investigation) :) , and we are free to hypothesize based on the available information to each of us.
 
In the Gesta Hungarorum it is symbolically mentioned that the originators of the Magyars came across the 'trail of the stars' (milky way) and were the descendants of Nimrud (the great hunter, possibly a reference to Orion). This is just one more interpretation available. The Greeks are also likely descendants of the Scythians and hence may have shared in the origin story which probably predates even them along with many other nations formed out of them (the Scythians).

I must apologise, I thought we were discussing the origins of the words 'celt' and 'gaul'. My mistake.

I have a slight feeling of deja vu - chapter 13

I must apologise again, I haven't read it. My eyesight has a useful daily limit and your posts usually excede it. Sorry.

DNA testing shows the early Habsburgs may be descended from "Celtic" (Gaulish?) warriors.

I'm not going to apologise for not having any faith whatsoever in DNA testing. Since about 2010ish it has just become another method of manipulating data to fit with agendas, imo.



So then, what if Gaul, Gales, Gallic, Celt, and Kelt all mean White? That won't be allowed, I.m sure.
 
then the 'meaning' Eastern would equally apply to both as they were all considered to be Scythians.
I have a hard time thinking it meant Eastern though. I can see how Keltoi and Scythians could be related, but Greek-Roman sources make perfectly clear that Scythians were Slavs, while they talked about Celts as a different people, otherwise they would have simply called them Scythians. Same with Latin where the Celts become Gauls and Scythians are Sclavones.
Now if chronology is incorrect, then the famous 'descent' of Gauls and Galatians into Italy and Greece could just be the arrival of the Franks on the scene. It seems that Celts/Gauls were the French/Western part of the story, and equating them to 'pure' Slavs would be very difficult.
The only possible 'bridge' that comes to my mind is the story told on the Arch of Maximilian and sources like the Liber Historiae Francorum, where the Franks/Sicambrians/Cimmerians/Troyans apparently made their way through Pannonia/Austria and finally arrived in France. IF Achilles was a Scythian, then the Franks/Sicambrians/Cimmerians/Troyans would be related to them in some way, even though I think that in that time period the Scythians were not already descended into the Balkans. In any case I totally see a common '''''''Indo-European:rolleyes:'''''''' origin:whistle:

MAAAAAAYBE!!!

there was nothing to subdue because its a fact that the 'tribes' who came from the east were NOT coming to subdue Pannonia, but to protect it from the increasing invasion of the 'Romans'.
I don't know about this one. It seems to me that before the insitution of modern history everyone was well acquainted with the arrival of Scythians/Slavs after a Greek-Roman period. Anna Komnene in her Alexiad makes an incredible remark about the Pannonian territory (I'm reporting here from another thread):
But the Emperor, hitting upon the right plan, abandoned the siege of the citadels (for it was an arduous and lengthy task), left the town and entrenched himself near a stream, not far from the Ister, and deliberated whether it would be wise to attack the Scythians. Palæologus and Gregorius Mavrocatacalon were for deferring war with the Patzinaks and advised taking an army and capturing the large town Pristhlava. “For,” said they, “if the Scythians see us marching in good order fully accoutred, they will certainly not dare to attack us. And should perchance a few horsemen without chariots risk an engagement, you may be sure they will be worsted, and then in future we shall have the large town of Pristhlava as our well-fortified stronghold.” This important town, which is situated on the Ister, did not always bear this barbaric name, but a Greek one, for it both was, and was called, a great city, namely, Megalopolis. But from the time that Mocrus, King of the Bulgarians, and his descendants, and finally Samuel, the last of the Bulgarian dynasty (as Zedekiah of the Jewish) overran the West, the town acquired a double name, retaining ‘great’ from the Greek language and adding a Slavic word, and was universally spoken of as “Great Pristhlava.”
In another passage she says (book VII, paragraph II - http://www.yorku.ca/inpar/alexiad_dawes.pdf):
It has not only one name, for in its upper reaches and near its source it is called the ‘Danube,’ whilst in the lower and at its mouths, the ‘Ister.’
I wondered for a long time where this Pristhlava was located but I have not reached a conclusion. My first hint was that it is the modern Bratislava, but it apparently took its name only recently (Bratislava - Wikipedia). Historians have recently identified that city with Pereyaslavets (Pereyaslavets - Wikipedia), possibly modern Nufaru (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nufăru). I don't trust historians' perception!
Anna clearly says that Pristhlava was previously a huge city called Megalopolis (meaning in fact 'huge city'). It is entirely possible that the city took another name in the course of time and in that case it could be a well known modern city. In any case Anna tells us that it was located on the Ister: the second lower part of modern Danube. This places ancient Megalopolis on the territory of modern Romania/Bulgaria.
Why am I talking about this? A quick research shows that 'ancient' Megalopolis can ultimately refer only to the Greek Arcadian Megalopolis, the most important of the Greek cities with that name. Fun fact is that modern Megalopolis received its name only in 1836 by Royal decree, its previous (and original) name being Sinan (from the greek wiki - https://el.wikipedia.org/wiki/Μεγαλόπολη#Νεότερα_χρόνια).
But if the true Arcadian Megalopolis was on the Danube, this means that 'ancient' Arcadia was the Danubian plane. The Serbian part of this plane is called Pannonian basin (Pannonian Basin - Wikipedia). I find interesting that ancient Arcadia was said to be the home of the god Pan (Arcadia (region) - Wikipedia).
If all of this is true than Italian Rome was founded by Greeks (Hellenes) coming from Arcadia/Pannonia, and more precisely from the city of Pallantium (Pallantium (Arcadia) - Wikipedia):
It was from this town that Evander of Pallene was said to have led colonists to the banks of the Tiber, and from it the Palatino or Palatine Hill in Rome was reputed to have derived its name.
So I would say that Slavs definitively arrived in a second moment in time, even though thy were distatntly related to Greeks/Romans/Gauls and all the other populations which in my opinion arrived there before.

There are two points worthy of considering regarding this matter;

1. The censorship was not as thorough and perfected as it is in today's academia and thereby more of the true research slipped into the mainstream.

2. It was harder to lie about the times which for the people of the 18th century was much more in the recent past than for us, since they've had an extra 200+ years since then to muddy the waters.

Considering these, I find those older sources reveal much more accurate information than recent ones.
Yeah, I almost agree on this one. It seems to me that the oldest verifiable change in the narrative started in Italy during the 14th-15th century through the so-called humanism and its 'son', the Renaissance. About the monks transcribing and changing the ancient books I have many doubts. First of all those books were in any case revised and re-published by humanists (who were also men of the Church) and filtered by the invention of movable type. A great number of authentic historical works were probably abandoned and 'lost' in that time period, following which there were burinings of books... probably the same same un-published manuscripts, IMO.
And it is a fact that those christian monks apparently copied pagan works of literature and they also CARVED THEIR FIGURES IN CHURCHES!!! Pagan philosophers, emperors, kings and gods were depicted in various forms and talked about in books.
I persoanlly think that proper Christianity resembling the one we are used to began later in time and probably around the time in which humanism made its appearance, double-IMO.

Think about it.

"Update It comes from the ancient name of the city of Porto Kala/kale/Cale meaning port/harbour. Also the city its in the origin of the country’s name Portugal. After the Romans toke over they called the city Portus-Cale/Portucale/Portugal which means Port Port in latin and Celtic. Kalã/kale/cale = what is nowadays Porto Kallaikoi/Calaeci/Galicia= people from Kalã/kale/Cale" Source
This is a good one.

I have a slight feeling of deja vu - chapter 13
Yeah, the Gaul definition there remains undefeated for me.

Just doing a "stream of consciousness" thing here, from skimming this thread for the first time, and wondering aloud if any of these associations add up - Julius Caesar/Jesus Christ, in Gaul/Galilee, Mary Magdalene in Provence, descendants of Jesus/Mary become/marry into the Merovingians with King Clovis, Clovis the first named ancestor of Habsburg Emperor Maximilian I on his Arch of Glory, DNA testing shows the early Habsburgs may be descended from "Celtic" (Gaulish?) warriors.
I see what you are saying. Caesar apparently met the Salian Franks (aka Sicambrians) during his Gallic campaign. acording to his Commentarii de Bello Gallico. Should we consider this text the real report of the events written by Caesar in the third person? Many doubts I have. But in any case there's something about it, imo.

The Greeks are also likely descendants of the Scythians and hence may have shared in the origin story which probably predates even them along with many other nations formed out of them (the Scythians).
I think the Greeks and the Sctyhians had a common (northern) origin but the Greeks descended to the Mediterranean during the first wave of colonisation, and the Scythians 'followed' them initially inhabiting the regions north of the Black Sea, imo.

not having any faith whatsoever in DNA testing. Since about 2010ish it has just become another method of manipulating data to fit with agendas, imo.
Yes 100%

So then, what if Gaul, Gales, Gallic, Celt, and Kelt all mean White? That won't be allowed, I.m sure.
The milk-origin is interesting for sure, but I think that the meaning 'white' as much as 'eastern' is just not something in the minds of ancient people. Why? Because they were all white!
It's our modern era and the forced 'partnership' of various races and ethnicities in the national enclosure that has created the need to be specific about colours. With the blind angry foolish reaction of the colour-blind-inducted-brainwashed people, IMHO.
 
Since about 2010ish it has just become another method of manipulating data to fit with agendas, imo.
I would be very interested to hear what you think happened to manipulate DNA testing around that time, seriously.
 
I see what you are saying. Caesar apparently met the Salian Franks (aka Sicambrians) during his Gallic campaign. acording to his Commentarii de Bello Gallico. Should we consider this text the real report of the events written by Caesar in the third person? Many doubts I have. But in any case there's something about it, imo.
Yes, you nailed it, we are on the same wavelength here. I too have my doubts about whether Caesar really wrote those commentaries. I know this is a stretch, but Caesar may have had a great-grandson in Gaul, Julius Sabinus, who briefly became Emperor there, and his descendants could have later wound up marrying into the Merovingian royal house of Clovis, the Habsburg ancestor. You may find this account intriguing, if nothing else- Julius Sabinus - Livius This would also go along with the possible "Celtic warrior" Habsburg DNA.
 
I too have my doubts about whether Caesar really wrote those commentaries.
The 'third person style' (don't know how it's called) seems to me just an 'explanation'. I would say that these commentaries were wrote by some historian/humanist and then proclaimed the original 'diary' written by Caesar 1500 years before. And we believe these stories without even asking a question!!!
I know this is a stretch, but Caesar may have had a great-grandson in Gaul, Julius Sabinus, who briefly became Emperor there, and his descendants could have later wound up marrying into the Merovingian royal house of Clovis, the Habsburg ancestor.
Even better, as I said to you in the other thread, it is said on the Arch that Caesar and Nero gave Austria its name, therefore implicitely stating they lived to the West of it... Gaul! And if Caesar and Christ were the same (something in which I believe, even if it doesn't necessarily be true, here the thread Was Jesus Christ Julius Caesar?), then we should reconsider what the Roman Empire was and its relation to the Holy Land. In any case the name 'Austria' reminds me of Austrasia (Austrasia - Wikipedia), presumably attested for the first time by Gregory of Tours, the same guy who talks about Clovis. I personally think that Austria and Austrasia are the same.
 
The 'third person style' (don't know how it's called) seems to me just an 'explanation'. I would say that these commentaries were wrote by some historian/humanist and then proclaimed the original 'diary' written by Caesar 1500 years before. And we believe these stories without even asking a question!!!
Just an interlude to say this is the clearest description of how things are actually done I have ever seen. Many thanks.
 
if Caesar and Christ were the same (something in which I believe, even if it doesn't necessarily be true, here the thread Was Jesus Christ Julius Caesar?),
Yes, I was really into Carlotta years ago, and then I drifted into Joseph Atwill/Roman Piso/Ralph Ellis/Charles N. Pope, the last two of whom claim, somewhat more "realistically" timewise, that "Jesus" was either the great-grandson or grandson of Julius Caesar, but using other identities.
then we should reconsider what the Roman Empire was and its relation to the Holy Land.
Charles N. Pope believes that Britain was a training ground for certain Roman Emperors, which in turn was actually a "consolation prize", subordinate to the throne in the Far East, of the "Great King". For instance, I could apply this to Julius Caesar, who fought in both Gaul and Britain before ruling Rome, and then intended to defeat Parthia, and thereby become King through the "back door". He made the Herodians rulers of Judea, and of course his relationship with Cleopatra is well known. Ironically, Pope did not trace the Caesar/"Jesus" genealogy through the "Dark Ages", because of the lack of clues there (I don't think he subscribes to any faked centuries, like Fomenko), but he did propose that a much later Roman Emperor (from memory, Valentinian III [419-455]) could have actually been an alternate identity of his contemporary, King Merovee (c411-458), of the Salian Franks. He never developed that idea beyond just mentioning it in passing, though.
In any case the name 'Austria' reminds me of Austrasia
Me too, years ago I read about an association of those names, and it stuck with me.
 
. About the monks transcribing and changing the ancient books I have many doubts.

They wrote the ancient books, before that it was all passed on by Bards and the like. It's evident in the ancient 'texts' of Ireland and Britain, the majority of them were transcribed from traditional oral sources and refer to pre-Christian times. However, Jesus and Mary are substituted for 'the Young God, son of the Great Goddess' for example. The Otherworld is renamed Hell, pre-Christian deities are either turned into demons, mortal men or given the name of a Christian saint. This is another reason why chronology is all screwed up because most of these Christianised elements were pre-Christian and some of the semi-divine deities lived for hundreds of years. Not only that, but information that may come to light later from un-Christianised sources always conflicts with the earlier 'glossed' versions and usually gets dismissed as 'myth' or 'legend'.

I would be very interested to hear what you think happened to manipulate DNA testing around that time, seriously.

OK, well I can give you an example. Back in about 2008-ish, there was a DNA survey conducted by a big University, Oxford I think. It concluded that the Scottish; Irish; Welsh; English; people of Brittany in France; people of Cantabria, Asturias and Galicla in northern Spain all shared the same uniquely identifiable DNA. Furthermore, this DNA was 75%-80% Basque. (Don't quote me on the exact figures.) This was pretty controversial as it knocked the whole mainstream Celtic Central European dogma on its arse. More than that, it also demonstrated that the Norse, Anglo-Saxon and even Norman invasions of the British Isles left no mark in the DNA, just as they left no mark in its archaeology.

Right, so then along comes the 'Indo-European' mantra, but there's a huge 'fly-in-the-ointment' or rather a 'Spainish-fly-in-the-ointment' - The Basques. Due to the uniqueness of their language, they simply don't fit into the new scheme of things. In order to circumvent this problem there have been many attempts to discredit the exclusivity of their language and also culture. But, what complicates this even more is that their culture isn't exclusive, their mythology, customs, traditions and folklore are very closely related to those of the Scottish; Irish; Welsh; English; people of Brittany in France; people of Cantabria, Asturias and Galicla in Spain- What a coincidence!

The biggest and perhaps the only difference between Basque mythology and the rest is that for them the Underworld is subterranean. They emerged from caves in the Pyrenees, their gods reside there and they will return there.

More recently further DNA tests have been appearing to 'demonstrate' that the Basques have identical DNA to the people throughout the rest of Spain and that the supposed exclusivity of their origins must be completely revised - in order to fit in with the Indo-European mantra.

I'd like to say, I'm no British 'nationalist', I don't have an axe to grind about being English. I just don't want to be railroaded into a politically manufactured category. Furthermore, considering the amount of effort that's been put into obscuring the real origins of the Basques, British and Irish, I want to know what's being covered-up.

The greatest area of controversy in the DNA field is related to Jewishness, but I don'r want to get into all of that.

So, to answer you question, finally, I think it was the same kind of 'medical tyranny' we are witnessing now (if you can categorise DNA testing as a medical thing) whereby scientific procedures are deliberately manipulated for the purpose of furthering a political or rather terrorist agenda. In the example above it's the Indo-European melting-pot.
 
They wrote the ancient books, before that it was all passed on by Bards and the like. It's evident in the ancient 'texts' of Ireland and Britain, the majority of them were transcribed from traditional oral sources and refer to pre-Christian times. However, Jesus and Mary are substituted for 'the Young God, son of the Great Goddess' for example. The Otherworld is renamed Hell, pre-Christian deities are either turned into demons, mortal men or given the name of a Christian saint. This is another reason why chronology is all screwed up because most of these Christianised elements were pre-Christian and some of the semi-divine deities lived for hundreds of years. Not only that, but information that may come to light later from un-Christianised sources always conflicts with the earlier 'glossed' versions and usually gets dismissed as 'myth' or 'legend'.
Yes I know how the story goes and I'm certainly not a Judeo-Christian to oppose what you are saying, but I'm just considering the whole thing from a recentist point of view, as always. In this case I think, and maybe I'm wrong, that medieval monks where not entirely christians as we think nowadays, but they were followers of the 'imperial' religion which venerated the emperors as living gods. Christianity would have spawned from this original imperial cult. Not sure about it though.
 
considering the amount of effort that's been put into obscuring the real origins of the Basques, British and Irish, I want to know what's being covered-up.
"9. The LINGUISTIC ATLANTIS

Berbo-Ibero-Basque
It has been suggested by linguistics that a nomadic Cro-Magnon society existed all the way from Morocco to the British Isles (which explains Stone Henge, similar sites in France, the caves near Basque, and Lixus). Both anthropologists and linguists agree that Basque is descended from a Cro-Magnon language.

Interesting notes: The Basque word for knife means “stone that cuts” and the word for ceiling means “top of cavern”. Basque is also a mystery in terms of its alien styles of vocabulary, syntax and grammatical structure. While the meanings and definitions of words are considered to be primitive, the actual syntax is extremely complex and orderly.

Both the Romans and Carthaginians recorded that Basque was originally very widespread.

atlantida13_03_small.gif

Berber left behind the Guanches of the Canary Islands, and Basque their unique European language. Prof. Johannes Friedrich, the leading linguist and expert on Berber claims the language has not changed in almost 2000 years. Its complexity assures that.

The extinct Iberian language (found only on tablets) is related to modern Basque, and is suggested to be either an earlier version of Basque, or a language spoken by one of the earlier stages of Cro-Magnon man.

Welsh, Erse and Gaelic use the same complicated syntax that Basque does. The people living in the British Isles used that language long before the Kelts arrived in 1800 BC. Welsh is peculiar in that it adopted Keltic words into its vocabulary, but maintained the syntax. It is suggested that Pre-Keltic Welsh was identical to Basque.

The Mayas continue to this day to speak their language, and to the surprise of a Basque missionary during the 1500s come to convert them, found that they spoke almost exactly the same language, with a slight difference in pronunciation.

from 'Atlantis Forgotten'"

Notes About The Basque People


the same kind of 'medical tyranny' we are witnessing now (if you can categorise DNA testing as a medical thing) whereby scientific procedures are deliberately manipulated for the purpose of furthering a political or rather terrorist agenda.
There is also much contentiousness among DNA testers with ancient Berber (Amazigh) ancestry, as to whether they were originally indigenous North African, Carthaginian (Phoenician), or Jewish in origin. Thus, there is a very nationalistic element involved here, besides the big business aspect of DNA company testing. Perhaps a coincidence, but I have noticed that since the pandemic started, big business is more openly buying in and taking over DNA testing companies and sites. Also, they have a public promotion tactic, consisting of leading people to believe that they will find long lost unknown ancestors easily, if they purchase a test, which is hardly the case in reality.

Finally, to tie this in with the thread topic, author Ralph Ellis at one time proposed that "Pantera", who was named in the Talmud by Jewish sages as being the real hidden father of "Jesus", could actually be King Ptolemy of Mauretania, who was of male line royal Berber descent (supposedly leading back to Hercules marrying a daughter of Atlas, the King of Atlantis and Mauretania). In conjunction with this, the "Holy Blood, Holy Grail" hypothesis has the alleged wife and children of Jesus settling in Gaul, with their descendants intermarrying and becoming Merovingians, who carry on ancient Jewish kingship rituals.
 
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Recently @Safranek put my attention to an interesting quote by Benjamin of Tudela, who was featured in this thread a few times:
“Thence extends the land of Bohemia, called Prague. This is the commencement of the land of Slavonia, and the Jews who dwell there call it Canaan, because the men of that land [the Slavs] sell their sons and their daughters to the other nations.”

I'll also include the one that I posted in the Roman Antiquity thread, just in case:
Another Gospel area is Idumea. We learn about it from Mark (3:7,8): "But Jesus and His disciples went away to the sea, and a great multitude followed Him from Galilee, from Judea, from Jerusalem, from Idumea, and from beyond the Jordan. And those who lived in the neighborhood of Tyre and Sidon, when they heard what He was doing, came to Him in great multitude."

The question of where the real Idumea was is best answered by the medieval author Benjamin of Tudela in "The Book of Wanderings":
From Lucca at a distance of six days' walk is the great city of Rome, capital of the kingdom of Edom. There are about two hundred Jews, all very honorable people, they do not pay taxes to anyone and some of them are in the service of Pope Alexander, who is the chief and representative of religion in Edom.

I don't think it could be any clearer. It is not even necessary to use a pointing finger. Where Rome stands, everyone knows. Admittedly, not everyone would agree that Benjamin's Kingdom of Edom is the same region as mentioned in the Gospel of Mark. Modern commentators will make up any version they want, as long as the readers of Benjamin's opus do not think too much of the glorious city of Rome. Indeed: Who needs these strange allusions to the Edomite character of papal Christianity?

Anyway, that first quote got me thinking. And while doing some semi-related research, I stumbled upon this nuclear warhead of an article - Это обязан знать каждый славянин! - AntonBlagin — КОНТ

It heavily relates to this whole theory and especially to the chapters which correctly identify Celts as Slavs in the framework of European Biblical Israel.

Again, I'll translate it in its entirety. The only thing I ask is to actually read it.

Also, a key to some words in the article, because English doesn't use the same pallet of descriptions:
a judean - the one who practices Judaism
a jew - an insulting name towards those specific people
a hebrew - a regular, "politically correct" name for the same people

translation:
Every Slav must know that!
Before I get killed for telling the truth, I have an obligation to get this information out to as many people as possible!

It does not matter what your profession is: whether you are a teacher, a worker or a soldier, it does not matter what your education is: elementary, secondary or the highest, it does not matter what your worldview is: you can be an atheist or a believer, what matters is this: if you do not possess this knowledge, you will still be, together with your other "brothers in understanding", nothing more than a flock of sheep, the so-called "goyim", controlled by "shepherds" and their "dogs".

Yes, yes! You will represent yourselves together with the other "brothers in the mind" as nothing more than a flock of sheep, literally like in this satirical picture (on the left), which mocks those who claim that "all conspiracy theories are paranoia". By the way, Pope Francis' cross (right) with the same image of a flock of sheep instead of people is a clear indication that some people think of all of you that way!

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Left: - "Hey, the human and the dog are definitely working together" - "Bor'ka, stop bothering us with your conspiracy theory"
Right - "Symbol of papal authority "THE SHEPERD AND THE FLOCK" - distinctive sign of the head of Roman Catholic church"​

Below I will give you three facts which not only prove that the "conspiracy theory" should not be treated as some nonsense or "schizophrenic delusion", these three facts prove and simultaneously explain that Russia and its people have been purposefully destroyed from outside and inside (from both sides at once!) for at least 400 years straight!

It will continue to be sought to destroy it!

This aspiration, in fact, we see now thanks to the position that has been taken against Russia, especially by the European Union, Ukraine, the U.S. and England.

We see this striving with our own eyes! But the overwhelming majority of people do not understand due to the absence of an important layer of information in their minds, why in the mouths of Western politicians Russia is always and in everything is "guilty". Why do they want to destroy us?!

So, below are three facts that today every Slav must know and always remember! They are related to each other by the strict cause-and-effect relations and they explain why Russia and its people are like a bone in the throat for someone who wants to bite it in half.

Fact 1.

Did you know that the Slavs once inhabited Palestine long ago?

Once I did not know this either, however, a fact is a fact: below is a fragment of the book "About the language of the hebrews who lived in ancient times in Russia and the Slavic words encountered in hebrew writings" (St. Petersburg, 1866). This book was written in the Russian Empire more than 150 years ago by Abraham Yakovlevich Garkavi, a Russian Orientalist and Hebraist, full State Councilor of the Russian Empire, author of articles in the Hebrew Encyclopedia and the Brockhaus and Efron Encyclopedic Dictionary.

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In medieval henrew writings the Slavic language is called the Canaan language, the Slavs are called like this as well, excluding some exceptions, they are known by the name of Canaanites. We will elaborate on the attitudes of hebrew writers to Slavs and stories about them, where Slavs are the descendants of the people that lived in Palestine (Canaan in Hebrew) in a special article.
From this literary monument, the publication of which was exactly 150 years old this year, we should take in the mind, literally take it in the nose that the judeans from ancient times call us Slavs - Canaanites, and our Slavic language - Canaanite language!

This is the key to understanding our history over the last 400 years!!!

The text of another old book "Itinerary of Benjamin of Tudela", published in London in 1841, confirms the truth of this information. It also says that the Slavs to the judeans are Canaanites.

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The sentence with the underlined text: "But soon Cunc, in the notes to the English edition of the travels of Benjamin of Tudela, comparing other places in hebrew writings, came to a conclusion, that the words "Canaan" and "Canaanite language" mean Slavs and their language.

Fact 2.

A simple question from a hebrew and the answer from a rabbi: "how do you justify the extermination, of women, children, and old people in the conquest of Canaan?"


Below, in the form of screen copy [S: translation], I will present a literally killer piece of information spread by the rabbis among the hebrews in recent years. Apparently, this is a very important information for the present day!

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How can we justify the extermination of women, children, and the elderly in the conquest of Canaan?

Dear Rabbi, while reading the Tanakh, I came across some confusing points. Can you please explain if we should take literally that the L-rd commanded the hebrews to exterminate the inhabitants of ancient Canaan?

I can still understand that it is forbidden to marry Gentiles, I can even explain that they had to be expelled from the territories inhabited by the hebrews, so that they would not seduce the henrews with their cults.

But how can one explain the extermination of women, children, the elderly? How can this be justified? When anti-Semites ask me these questions, I do not know what to say.

I hope that at least you can help me understand. Maybe I read something wrong? Maybe they should not have exterminated all the inhabitants, but only the warriors?
Oleg
Russia

Answer:

The hebrew people came to the Land of Israel 40 years after the Exodus from Egypt. The Land of Israel is everywhere in the Torah called the land of Kenaan, in the Russian version - Canaan, from the word ahnaa - "bowing", "submission" (to the Lord). This is in the actual translation.

"Technically", this was the name of the strongest tribe of all the tribes that inhabited the area.

The seven nations that lived in this land before the hebrews came were very "active" idolaters. They differed from many other idolatrous nations (all nations were idolatrous at that time) by their particular zeal in serving idols.

We learn from the Tanakh (beginning of the Book of the Prophet Yehoshua) that the tribes that lived in Kenaan knew about the Exodus of the hebrews from Egypt, their coming to the Land of Israel and that Highest One had given this land to the hebrew people.

Before the outbreak of military actions, the hebrews, under the leadership of Jehoshua ibn-Nun (the disciple and successor of Moshe Rabeinu) offered these tribes two options for "peaceful settlement" of the problem: to voluntarily leave the territory or - to stay, but on condition that they completely renounce any form of idolatry (mind you, they were not required to become hebrews).

Note, by the way, that the Givonim (one of the tribes inhabiting Kenaan, named after the city of Givon, in the Russian transcription - Gavaon), agreed to stay, promising to fulfill the condition set by the hebrews.

I would like to draw your readers' attention - despite the fact that they did not fulfill the promise and continued to worship idols, they, since there was an agreement with them, still - not touched. They lived in Eretz Israel (north of Jerusalem). Later, by the way, their presence caused a lot of trouble.

The Land of Israel was allocated by Highest One to the hebrew people for spiritual work - to correct the world and bring all mankind to the One G-d. This work was voluntarily undertaken by Abraham, and the hebrew people, Abraham's descendants, carried it on. The rest of humanity refused to do this work.

At Mount Sinai, the henrews received the Torah, in which G-d gave instructions on how to fix the world. And it is only natural that worshipping idols in a place specifically designated to carry out G-d's "task" would "attract" the Wrath of Heaven. That is why the presence of idolaters on the territory of the Land of Israel is absolutely unacceptable. For more details, see the response to "How does Judaism deal with emigration from Israel?" on the site.

If one assumes that the world is exclusively - material, and that man consists only of flesh and blood, then only warriors can pose a danger (as you wrote in your letter), mostly. However, in reality this is not the case. The main component of man is the soul, placed in a corporeal shell. Therefore, it is necessary to consider the danger not only for the body, but also - for the soul. The threat to physical existence is visible "with the naked eye"; even a child has a sense of danger and the instinct of self-preservation. The threat to the soul is not immediately visible. It may take time for a person to realize that he has turned from the right path, and going back is an extremely difficult process

So the threat to the hebrew people's mission to the Land of Israel can come from anyone, young, middle-aged or elderly - whether male or female - who worships any "powers" other than G-d. After all, spiritual harm is done not by the sword, but - by behavior, by words, by a kind of "radiation" that affects those around them. For example, these days Christian missionaries, men and women, kill hebrew souls without any physical violence - only by persuading them to abandon their faith in the One Creator. Therefore, the mere presence of idolatry in the Land of Israel is enough to provoke the wrath of Heaven. For such a presence creates, in a sense, a "poisonous" atmosphere.

The Torah tells how the women of Moab seduced the hebrews to force them to worship idols. And 24,000 people died as a result. For more on this, see the website for a review of the weekly chapter of Balak, the first annual cycle of discussion.

As for the children of the idolaters-they grow up and become adults. Therefore, one could say that in this context such a child is a "time bomb". Of course, the question arises: isn't it possible to remedy the situation by taking an infant and raising him with faith in the One Creator? Then, should we not kill him?

The Oral Torah states that in Egypt, Moshe Rabbeinu, seeing hebrew children being walled up, called upon the Mercy of the Most High in prayer. The Almighty answered - it is necessary, but if Moshe wants, he can choose any child and He will save it. Moshe did so - the child that Moshe pointed to survived. He later became an idolater and took a very active part in the creation of the golden calf (see the website, for example, for a review of the weekly chapter of Ki Tisa, the fourth year's discussion cycle).

Only G-d knows what each individual child will become when he grows up. Therefore, if you act on His command, you can't go wrong. And if Creator of the world told to destroy all, including even infants, it means He saw that they will follow their fathers' steps in future.

Of course, we ourselves have no right to make decisions about killing children (we do not know what will happen to them even in the next moment, much less in five, ten or twenty years). Only the Creator of the world can give such an indication, for He is not limited by time and "sees" the picture of the world as a whole, which for Him is not divided into past, present and future, He knows what will happen to His creatures, even if in a thousand years or more.

Upon entering the Land of Israel, the hebrew people should have quickly settled all of its territory. However, this did not happen-there was pity and indecision where it had no place.

Mercy is a manifestation of the greatness of the human soul. But not when it directly contradicts the clearly expressed Will of Heaven. Because of this misplaced "mercy" the process of taking possession of the Land of Israel was then delayed for about 500 years.

Here is another famous historical example of misplaced mercy. The hebrew king Shaul took pity on Agag, a descendant of Amalek, the king of the Amalekites, whose hatred for the hebrews was the meaning of their lives. He took pity and did not execute him at once, contrary to the command of the Creator. And this had grave consequences for our people.

You write that anti-Semites ask you questions about the extermination of women, children and the elderly when the hebrews conquered the Kenaan lands. Do they have any moral right to ask about that? For thousands of years the innocent blood of women, children and old people has been shed in the world. Not for the sake of high ideals - for the sake of booty, power, honor, right and left, without any pity, people cut each other's heads off. Suffice it to recall that during the 20th century alone, tens of millions of innocent people were murdered in Europe in general and in the Soviet Union in particular, including, of course, women, children, the elderly. I repeat, not in some distant, "dark" times - in the 20th century, in the lifetime of modern generations.

Today, terrorist attacks carried out under the banner of Islam in Israel, the United States and Europe claim the lives of innocent women, children and old people. At the same time, Russia supplies arms to the Muslim countries that patronize the terrorist gangs.

Your opponents may not have anything to do with the arms shipments, but they may realize that this is evil. Until they realize it, they are passive accomplices of murderers in the eyes of Heaven. So, before they reproach someone for brutalizing innocent victims, let them first think about what their people and their allies are doing.

In conclusion, I stress that the Torah cannot be "tried on" to a material view of the world. The Torah is the Wisdom of the Creator, which gives us a "tool" for correcting the world and eradicating evil from it.

If we look at the Torah texts from this perspective, everything falls into place.
If one considers that the world is only a spiritless matter, the system of its Management, indeed it may seem strange, illogical and - unethical...

Written by Haim Ackerman

08.07.13
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Source

Indeed, looking at the judean Torah from this perspective not only makes everything "fall into place", but it also makes you understand why, for example, the famous Austrian musician Franz Liszt, who had Slavic roots, once drew the following conclusion:

1637433747628.png
"The day will come when for all the peoples among whom the jews live, the question of their universal exile will become a matter of life or death, health or chronic illness, peaceful living or eternal social fever."​

What made the greatest musician and composer of the 19th century to come to this conclusion!?

Only one thing! Careful, thoughtful and conscious reading of the Christian Bible, which is constituted of two-thirds of the judean Torah, and was helped by the knowledge, available to everyone in the 19th century, that in the judean writings "the words 'Canaan' and 'Canaanite language' refer to the Slavs and their language".

How the judeans destroyed the "predominant tribe" in the land of Canaan is eloquently told in the Bible.

"And David took the crown of their king from his head,-and in it was a talent of gold and a precious stone,-and David laid it on his head, and brought forth much booty from the city."

"And the people that were in it, he brought them out and put them under saws, under iron threshers, under iron axes, and threw them into the fiery furnaces. So he did with all the cities of the Ammonites. And David and all the people returned after that to Jerusalem..." (2 Samuel 12:30-31).

Ask yourself, "saws and iron threshers" - what kind of monstrous way to execute a peaceful, captured urban population?

And the "firing furnaces"?

Isn't that why the judeans have been imagining the HOLOCAUST ever since, because they themselves burned people alive by the thousands, and the fear of retribution for what they did has been keeping them awake ever since?

And how many peoples (!) they wiped off the face of the earth, carrying out the covenants of their "divine" Torah with Jehovah the god at the head!!!

Here are just some of the "divine commandments" that were given to the judeans, as Rabbi Chaim Ackerman says, "to mend the world".

1637434685814.png
Text from image:
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"These are the commandments, decrees, and laws which the Lord your God has commanded, to teach you to do these things in the land into which you are going, that you may to take possession of it." (Bible. Deuteronomy 6: 1).

"And no fierce diseases of Egypt, which thou knowest, shall bring upon you, but will bring them upon all who hate you. And thou shalt destroy all the nations, which the Lord thy God giveth thee. Let not thy eye spare them..." (Bible. Deuteronomy 7:15-16).

"And the Lord your God will drive out these peoples before you little by little. You cannot destroy them soon, so that wild animals do not multiply against you. But the Lord your God will give them over to you, and will bring them to great confusion so that they will perish. And he will deliver their kings into your hand, and you will destroy their name from the face of the earth: no one can stand against you until you eradicate them. Burn the idols of their gods with fire..." (Deuteronomy 7:22-25).

"If a prophet or an oneiromancer rises up among you, and presents you a sign or a miracle, and the sign of which he spoke to you comes true, and and he will say: "Let us follow the other gods, which you do not know, and let us and serve them"... That prophet or that oneiromancer must be put to death... for making you apostatize from the Lord your God, who brought you out of the land of Egypt..." (The Bible. The Fifth Book of Moses. Deuteronomy 13:1-5).

The written Torah is the Constitution of the hebrew people,
but declared not by men, but by G-d.
(Rabbi Chaim Donin)​
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If anyone is still naively convinced that Adolf Hitler was "anti-Semitic", I recommend that you read my separate work: "The Devil's Lair: The Truth about Switzerland, Zionism and the hebrews." Everything will immediately fall into place and the misconceptions will be dispelled!

Fact 3.

Finally, there is one more fact that influenced me to become a well-known writer not only in Russia, but also far beyond its borders.

I hope that everyone has heard about this pro-judean sect "Jehovah's Witnesses", which is headquartered in the United States, in Brooklyn!

This sect, now banned in Russia, by the way, had hundreds of thousands of adepts in Russia during Gorbachev's "perestroika" era, who went to all Russian cities, to the homes and apartments of Russians and distributed propaganda literature in the form of "Watchtower" and "Awaken!" magazines.

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These "Jehovah's Witnesses" caught my eye more than once, and even handed me their magazines. One issue of Watchtower shocked me so much with its content that I became a writer myself, a warrior writer, a fighter on the information front.

In the April 1997 issue of Watchtower, published with a circulation of over 20 million copies, the question was posed to me and all Russians right from the cover: "Are these really the last days?"

There, on the cover, was the answer: "True! Only those who wholeheartedly devote themselves to Jehovah God will remain alive!"

This way of putting the question and answering it naturally angered me to my core. I opened this magazine to see a commentary on such a shocking statement. I wanted to know why people who do not believe in the judean god Jehovah should be destroyed.

And this is what I read there: "Jehovah told Abraham that his descendants would inherit the land of Canaan, but not until four centuries later, "for the measure of the iniquities of the Amorites has not yet been filled. Here, the word "Amorites", which translates to "prevailing tribe", refers to the Canaanite people as a whole. So Jehovah was not going to give his people the opportunity to conquer Canaan until four centuries later. This period Jehovah let go so that the Canaanites could develop civilization. What did the Canaanites come to?"

Just imagine the situation! In Russia at that time, there was an army of sectarians who didn't explain who the "Canaanites" were, and they didn't say a word about what "Canaan" they were talking about, but they told everyone that hebrews or judeans who worship Jehovah (Yahweh) must very soon, in the near future (!) "conquer Canaan" and win against "the prevailing tribe"!

* * *

By the way, about the hint of the "Jehovah's Witnesses" that the judeans "will have the opportunity to conquer Canaan only after 4 centuries"... It appears that the counting of time goes not from some "prehistoric times" and not from the moment of "Baptism of Russia", but from 1613, when the Romanov (Roman) dynasty came to power in Russia. I shared my thoughts on this subject in my article "Confessions of a "clairvoyant", what was and what will be...".

To make a reference to 1613, the "four hundred years of the conquest of Canaan", I was prompted by a painting by Peter Lastman, "Abraham on the Road to the Land of Canaan", painted in 1614. Well, the idea to paint this painting did not come to the painter Lastman out of the blue! Most likely, the idea was discussed in the judean community at the time!

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Also in this chronology, like a ball in a billiard pocket, are the prophecies "about the jewish revolution" of Russian writer Fyodor Dostoevsky, which he published in the Diary of a Writer in 1877:

"...The jewish revolution must begin with atheism, for the hebrews must overthrow that faith, that religion, out of which came the moral foundations that made Russia both holy and great!" "Godless anarchism is near: our children will see it... The International has decreed that the henrew revolution begins in Russia... It is beginning, because we have no reliable resistance against it - neither in government, nor in society. Revolt will begin with atheism and plundering of all the wealth, they will begin to decay religion, destroy temples and turn them into barracks, in the stalls, will flood the world with blood, and then they themselves will get scared. The henrews will ruin Russia and become the leader of anarchy. The Jew and co are conspiring against the Russians. There will be a terrible, colossal, spontaneous revolution that will shake all the kingdoms of the world with a change in the face of this world. But it will take a hundred million heads. The whole world will be flooded with rivers of blood". Source. (Dostoevsky F.M. Diary of a Writer. / (Dostoevsky F.M. Dostoevsky F.M. The Writer's Diary. Ed. by O.A.Platonov. - M.: Institute of Russian Civilization, 2010. - 880 с.).

All that Dostoevsky described 138 years ago, was fulfilled exactly a few decades later. Dostoevsky did not even get the figure wrong - during the transformation of the "face of this world" by the jews the Russian people lost exactly "100 million heads", according to historians' calculations.

Today there is no reason to doubt that the so-called "Great October Socialist Revolution", the course of which was directed by Trotsky and Lenin, was conceived and carried out exclusively for the jews to become the leader of the Russian and other peoples living in Russia!

In confirmation of these thoughts and this historical vision, Russian President Vladimir Putin recently said that "the first Soviet government was 80-85% hebrew". By the way, this is also a historical fact!

Well, after this chain of facts, who can say that the revolution of 1917 was not an attempt at the final conquest of Canaan by the jews-judeans?

The dream of the jews was not allowed to come true by Joseph Stalin. But that is a separate story.

* * *

Brothers and sisters! If we are not yet quite sheep, we should all now connect the facts given here together, including the revelations of "Jehovah's witnesses", and conclude that the jewish tribe with the god Jehovah at the head now wishes to conquer finally not some abstract Canaan, but Russia, Rus'! And this tribe calls us, the Slavs, the Russian people who are the constituent people of Russia, the "prevailing tribe", because we really are the "prevailing tribe" in relation to them.

And they are not going to spare any of us in the future battle "for Canaan"!

Recall the words of Chaim Ackerman, who answered the question of a hebrew from Russia who asked, "How can we justify the extermination, of women, children, the elderly in the conquest of Canaan?"

The rabbi's answer is unprecedented: "Only G-d knows what each particular child will become when he grows up. Therefore, if you act on His command, you will not make a mistake. And if the Creator of the world said that all must be destroyed, including even infants, it means that He saw that they would later follow in the footsteps of their fathers." (Haim Ackerman)

Here is the goal to which this "God-chosen tribe" is still striving today, regarding which the legendary Christ said: "your father is the devil, and you want to accomplish the lusts of your father..." (John 8:44)!

This goal defines the entire policy of the current leaders of the European Union, the U.S., England and several other countries, which all naturally belong to the number of "God's Chosen".

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And let me tell you something else, just to make you understand that World War II was prepared and carried out for the same purpose - to conquer "Canaan", which the Russians call Russia, and to exterminate the "prevailing tribe of Canaanites" by the hands of the duped Germans.

Here is the fourth fact, in addition to the three above.

It turns out that just two days after the attack of Hitler's Germany on the USSR, June 24, 1941, U.S. Senator Harry Truman (the representative of the highest caste of human murderers, later the 33rd President of the United States) told the New York Times correspondent the position of the ruling circles of America in this war: "If we see that Germany wins, we should help Russia, and if Russia wins, we should help Germany, and THAT way, let them KILL as much as possible...".

I personally learned about this fact thanks to a rare book published in the USSR, "THE SOVIET-AMERICAN RELATIONS BETWEEN THE GREAT WORLD WAR 1941-1945" (Foreign Ministry, Volume 2, Moscow, Political Literature Publishers, 1984).

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This photo of Harry Truman's speech note published in the New York Times was published in the same book, "SOVIET-AMERICAN RELATIONS BETWEEN THE GREAT WORLD WAR, 1941-1945".

Such were "Soviet-American relations" at that time.

Such they remain to this day!

Without knowledge of this strategic information, of course, it is impossible to understand what is happening in the world today.

To conclude this article, I would like to say this.

In the last three days, I have already been warned from three different sides that the judean mafia would destroy me. There have also been threats from the "judean mafia" itself.

During the last 20 years, I was only afraid of one thing, not having enough time to tell people the truth that Heaven was revealing to me. Now it seems to me that I have fulfilled my mission completely... or nearly so...

So, fellow jews, enemies of the human race, now you can do with me what you want! As the Russian warriors say in such cases, "I call the fire on myself!"

April 10, 2016. Murmansk. Anton Blagin
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A quite interesting accidentally encountered article. Especially mentions of chronology, which could be applied to the chronology of this theory, with placement of Gospel events and 15th century catastrophism. On the other hand, it can hint that the OT was written quite recently.
 
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